an1=?
a=0
This question is actually a proof of the law of exponents for negative exponents, we will prove it simply using two other laws of exponents:
a. The zero exponent law, which states that raising any number to the power of 0 (except 0) will give the result 1:
b. The law of exponents for division between terms with identical bases:
Let's return to the problem and pay attention to two things, the first is that in the denominator of the fraction there is a term with base and the second thing is that according to the zero exponent law mentioned above in a' we can always write the number 1 as any number (except 0) to the power of 0, particularly in this problem, given that we can claim that:
Let's apply this to the problem:
Now that we have in the numerator and denominator of the fraction terms with identical bases, we can use the law of division between terms with identical bases mentioned in b' in the problem:
Let's summarize the steps above, we got that:
In other words, we proved the law of exponents for negative exponents and understood why the correct answer is answer c.