Multiply Mixed Numbers: 1⅞ × 2⅓ Step-by-Step Solution

Question

168×226= 1\frac{6}{8}\times2\frac{2}{6}=

Video Solution

Step-by-Step Solution

To solve this problem, we'll follow these steps:

  • Step 1: Convert each mixed number to an improper fraction.
  • Step 2: Multiply the improper fractions.
  • Step 3: Simplify the resulting fraction.
  • Step 4: Convert the improper fraction back to a mixed number if necessary.

Let's begin:

Step 1: Convert to improper fractions
Convert 1681\frac{6}{8} to an improper fraction:
8×1+68=148\frac{8 \times 1 + 6}{8} = \frac{14}{8}.

Convert 2262\frac{2}{6} to an improper fraction:
6×2+26=146\frac{6 \times 2 + 2}{6} = \frac{14}{6}.

Step 2: Multiply the fractions
Multiply 148\frac{14}{8} and 146\frac{14}{6}:
148×146=19648\frac{14}{8} \times \frac{14}{6} = \frac{196}{48}.

Step 3: Simplify the fraction
Find the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 196 and 48, which is 4. Simplify 19648\frac{196}{48}:
196÷448÷4=4912\frac{196 \div 4}{48 \div 4} = \frac{49}{12}.

Step 4: Convert to a mixed number
4912\frac{49}{12} as a mixed number is 41124\frac{1}{12} since 49 divided by 12 is 4 with a remainder of 1.

Therefore, the solution to the problem is 4112 4\frac{1}{12} .

Answer

4112 4\frac{1}{12}