Solve Mixed Number Multiplication: 1¼ × 1⅞

Question

114×168= 1\frac{1}{4}\times1\frac{6}{8}=

Video Solution

Step-by-Step Solution

To solve this problem, we'll follow these steps:

  • Step 1: Convert each mixed number to an improper fraction.
  • Step 2: Multiply the improper fractions.
  • Step 3: Convert the result back to a mixed number.

Now, let's work through each step:

Step 1: Convert each mixed number to an improper fraction.
For 1141\frac{1}{4}:
- Whole number is 1, denominator is 4, and numerator is 1.
- Convert to improper fraction: 114=4×1+14=541\frac{1}{4} = \frac{4 \times 1 + 1}{4} = \frac{5}{4}.

For 1681\frac{6}{8}:
- Whole number is 1, denominator is 8, and numerator is 6.
- Convert to improper fraction: 168=8×1+68=1481\frac{6}{8} = \frac{8 \times 1 + 6}{8} = \frac{14}{8}.
- Simplify 148\frac{14}{8} to 74\frac{7}{4} by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by 2.

Step 2: Multiply the improper fractions:
54×74=5×74×4=3516\frac{5}{4} \times \frac{7}{4} = \frac{5 \times 7}{4 \times 4} = \frac{35}{16}.

Step 3: Convert the improper fraction back to a mixed number:
Divide 35 by 16. This gives 2 as the quotient with a remainder of 3.
Thus, 3516=2316\frac{35}{16} = 2\frac{3}{16}.

Therefore, the product of 114×1681\frac{1}{4} \times 1\frac{6}{8} is 23162\frac{3}{16}.

Answer

2316 2\frac{3}{16}