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Due to the fact that raising any number (except zero) to the power of zero will yield the result 1:
It is thus clear that:
Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
0
Which of the following is equivalent to \( 100^0 \)?
This comes from the exponent division rule. When you divide powers with the same base: . Since any number divided by itself equals 1, we have !
Yes! The zero exponent rule applies to any non-zero number, including fractions, decimals, and negative numbers. So , , and .
That's a special case! is actually undefined in most contexts because it creates a mathematical contradiction. The zero exponent rule only applies to non-zero bases.
Think of it as "anything to the zero = hero" (sounds like zero)! Or remember: when you see an equation like , your first thought should be "x must be 0".
You could use logarithms: take log of both sides to get , so x = 0. But recognizing the zero exponent rule is much faster!
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